Why should K be closed to ensure X/K is complete?












3














If $K$ is a closed subspace of Banach space $X$, then $X/K$ is complete. But I think the usual proof of this theorem doesn't make use of the fact that $K$ is closed. Would anyone explain it to me? Thanks a lot.










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    3














    If $K$ is a closed subspace of Banach space $X$, then $X/K$ is complete. But I think the usual proof of this theorem doesn't make use of the fact that $K$ is closed. Would anyone explain it to me? Thanks a lot.










    share|cite|improve this question

























      3












      3








      3







      If $K$ is a closed subspace of Banach space $X$, then $X/K$ is complete. But I think the usual proof of this theorem doesn't make use of the fact that $K$ is closed. Would anyone explain it to me? Thanks a lot.










      share|cite|improve this question













      If $K$ is a closed subspace of Banach space $X$, then $X/K$ is complete. But I think the usual proof of this theorem doesn't make use of the fact that $K$ is closed. Would anyone explain it to me? Thanks a lot.







      functional-analysis






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      asked Nov 11 at 18:29









      Zeng

      524




      524






















          3 Answers
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          7














          If the subspace $K$ is not closed, then the quotient $X/K$ is not even Hausdorff, so does not meet the usual requirements of a topological vector space at all!



          (It's not about completeness or not, as $X/K$ is not metric in that case!)



          EDIT: In more detail, for $K$ not closed, and for $x$ in the closure of $K$ but not in $K$ itself, every neighborhood of $0$ in the quotient (with the quotient topology) contains $x$, but $xnot=0$ in the quotient. So the quotient would be non-Hausdorff (since two distinct points, $0$ and $x$, do not have disjoint neighborhoods).



          A Banach space, or even a normed space, is Hausdorff, as is every metric space.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Thanks! But it has been a long time since my last topology class, so would you give me some hint?
            – Zeng
            Nov 11 at 18:39



















          4














          If $K$ is not closed, then the function $lVert x+KrVert=inf_{yin K} lVert x-yrVert$ is not a norm on the quotient space, but just a seminorm, because $lVert x+KrVert=0$ for all $xinoverline K$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





























            2














            You do need closure of $K$. In particular, you need it to show that $X/K$ is in fact a normed space: If $| x + K |=0$, closure of $K$ implies that $x+K=K=0_{X/K}$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              7














              If the subspace $K$ is not closed, then the quotient $X/K$ is not even Hausdorff, so does not meet the usual requirements of a topological vector space at all!



              (It's not about completeness or not, as $X/K$ is not metric in that case!)



              EDIT: In more detail, for $K$ not closed, and for $x$ in the closure of $K$ but not in $K$ itself, every neighborhood of $0$ in the quotient (with the quotient topology) contains $x$, but $xnot=0$ in the quotient. So the quotient would be non-Hausdorff (since two distinct points, $0$ and $x$, do not have disjoint neighborhoods).



              A Banach space, or even a normed space, is Hausdorff, as is every metric space.






              share|cite|improve this answer























              • Thanks! But it has been a long time since my last topology class, so would you give me some hint?
                – Zeng
                Nov 11 at 18:39
















              7














              If the subspace $K$ is not closed, then the quotient $X/K$ is not even Hausdorff, so does not meet the usual requirements of a topological vector space at all!



              (It's not about completeness or not, as $X/K$ is not metric in that case!)



              EDIT: In more detail, for $K$ not closed, and for $x$ in the closure of $K$ but not in $K$ itself, every neighborhood of $0$ in the quotient (with the quotient topology) contains $x$, but $xnot=0$ in the quotient. So the quotient would be non-Hausdorff (since two distinct points, $0$ and $x$, do not have disjoint neighborhoods).



              A Banach space, or even a normed space, is Hausdorff, as is every metric space.






              share|cite|improve this answer























              • Thanks! But it has been a long time since my last topology class, so would you give me some hint?
                – Zeng
                Nov 11 at 18:39














              7












              7








              7






              If the subspace $K$ is not closed, then the quotient $X/K$ is not even Hausdorff, so does not meet the usual requirements of a topological vector space at all!



              (It's not about completeness or not, as $X/K$ is not metric in that case!)



              EDIT: In more detail, for $K$ not closed, and for $x$ in the closure of $K$ but not in $K$ itself, every neighborhood of $0$ in the quotient (with the quotient topology) contains $x$, but $xnot=0$ in the quotient. So the quotient would be non-Hausdorff (since two distinct points, $0$ and $x$, do not have disjoint neighborhoods).



              A Banach space, or even a normed space, is Hausdorff, as is every metric space.






              share|cite|improve this answer














              If the subspace $K$ is not closed, then the quotient $X/K$ is not even Hausdorff, so does not meet the usual requirements of a topological vector space at all!



              (It's not about completeness or not, as $X/K$ is not metric in that case!)



              EDIT: In more detail, for $K$ not closed, and for $x$ in the closure of $K$ but not in $K$ itself, every neighborhood of $0$ in the quotient (with the quotient topology) contains $x$, but $xnot=0$ in the quotient. So the quotient would be non-Hausdorff (since two distinct points, $0$ and $x$, do not have disjoint neighborhoods).



              A Banach space, or even a normed space, is Hausdorff, as is every metric space.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Nov 11 at 18:55

























              answered Nov 11 at 18:31









              paul garrett

              31.4k361118




              31.4k361118












              • Thanks! But it has been a long time since my last topology class, so would you give me some hint?
                – Zeng
                Nov 11 at 18:39


















              • Thanks! But it has been a long time since my last topology class, so would you give me some hint?
                – Zeng
                Nov 11 at 18:39
















              Thanks! But it has been a long time since my last topology class, so would you give me some hint?
              – Zeng
              Nov 11 at 18:39




              Thanks! But it has been a long time since my last topology class, so would you give me some hint?
              – Zeng
              Nov 11 at 18:39











              4














              If $K$ is not closed, then the function $lVert x+KrVert=inf_{yin K} lVert x-yrVert$ is not a norm on the quotient space, but just a seminorm, because $lVert x+KrVert=0$ for all $xinoverline K$.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                4














                If $K$ is not closed, then the function $lVert x+KrVert=inf_{yin K} lVert x-yrVert$ is not a norm on the quotient space, but just a seminorm, because $lVert x+KrVert=0$ for all $xinoverline K$.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  4












                  4








                  4






                  If $K$ is not closed, then the function $lVert x+KrVert=inf_{yin K} lVert x-yrVert$ is not a norm on the quotient space, but just a seminorm, because $lVert x+KrVert=0$ for all $xinoverline K$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  If $K$ is not closed, then the function $lVert x+KrVert=inf_{yin K} lVert x-yrVert$ is not a norm on the quotient space, but just a seminorm, because $lVert x+KrVert=0$ for all $xinoverline K$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 11 at 18:32









                  Saucy O'Path

                  5,8721626




                  5,8721626























                      2














                      You do need closure of $K$. In particular, you need it to show that $X/K$ is in fact a normed space: If $| x + K |=0$, closure of $K$ implies that $x+K=K=0_{X/K}$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                        2














                        You do need closure of $K$. In particular, you need it to show that $X/K$ is in fact a normed space: If $| x + K |=0$, closure of $K$ implies that $x+K=K=0_{X/K}$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          2












                          2








                          2






                          You do need closure of $K$. In particular, you need it to show that $X/K$ is in fact a normed space: If $| x + K |=0$, closure of $K$ implies that $x+K=K=0_{X/K}$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          You do need closure of $K$. In particular, you need it to show that $X/K$ is in fact a normed space: If $| x + K |=0$, closure of $K$ implies that $x+K=K=0_{X/K}$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Nov 11 at 18:36









                          Alonso Delfín

                          3,72911032




                          3,72911032






























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