Difference between z<y<x and z<y and y<x
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I have been searching high and low for an answer to this question but unfortunately I am unable to find any.
Why isn't (z<y<x) the same as (z<y AND y<x)?
I tried querying using the former and I am not getting the same results as the latter.
Your help would be greatly appreciated!
postgresql
edited Nov 11 at 14:13
Flimzy
36.6k96496
asked Nov 11 at 14:10
GeekRome
11
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I have been searching high and low for an answer to this question but unfortunately I am unable to find any.
Why isn't (z<y<x) the same as (z<y AND y<x)?
I tried querying using the former and I am not getting the same results as the latter.
Your help would be greatly appreciated!
postgresql
edited Nov 11 at 14:13
Flimzy
36.6k96496
asked Nov 11 at 14:10
GeekRome
11
Operator precedence and type conversion I would guess
– Nick A
Nov 11 at 14:15
Are you asking this in the context of a query, proc, or function? Can you shows the entire relevant code?
– Tim Biegeleisen
Nov 11 at 14:15
Is this possible in postgresql? If I tryselect (1<2<3);I get a syntax error. The only language that I know of wherex<y<zis equivalent tox<y and y<zis python. In many languagesx<y<zis the same as(x<y)<z, which meanszis compared to the boolean result ofx<y. Sofalse<z, for example.
– Håken Lid
Nov 11 at 14:19
Really appreciate the responses guys. It's a context of a query. I just tried playing around with my database and yes, it will return a syntax error if done in PostgreSQL. However, I was doing some practice on HackerRank and it returns a result if done in MySQL. Does that mean that MySQL supports that sort of syntax, or HackerRank is doing something incorrectly?
– GeekRome
Nov 16 at 12:30
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I have been searching high and low for an answer to this question but unfortunately I am unable to find any.
Why isn't (z<y<x) the same as (z<y AND y<x)?
I tried querying using the former and I am not getting the same results as the latter.
Your help would be greatly appreciated!
postgresql
edited Nov 11 at 14:13
Flimzy
36.6k96496
asked Nov 11 at 14:10
GeekRome
11
I have been searching high and low for an answer to this question but unfortunately I am unable to find any.
Why isn't (z<y<x) the same as (z<y AND y<x)?
I tried querying using the former and I am not getting the same results as the latter.
Your help would be greatly appreciated!
postgresql
postgresql
edited Nov 11 at 14:13
Flimzy
36.6k96496
asked Nov 11 at 14:10
GeekRome
11
edited Nov 11 at 14:13
Flimzy
36.6k96496
asked Nov 11 at 14:10
GeekRome
11
edited Nov 11 at 14:13
Flimzy
36.6k96496
edited Nov 11 at 14:13
Flimzy
36.6k96496
edited Nov 11 at 14:13
Flimzy
36.6k96496
36.6k96496
asked Nov 11 at 14:10
GeekRome
11
asked Nov 11 at 14:10
GeekRome
11
asked Nov 11 at 14:10
GeekRome
11
11
Operator precedence and type conversion I would guess
– Nick A
Nov 11 at 14:15
Are you asking this in the context of a query, proc, or function? Can you shows the entire relevant code?
– Tim Biegeleisen
Nov 11 at 14:15
Is this possible in postgresql? If I tryselect (1<2<3);I get a syntax error. The only language that I know of wherex<y<zis equivalent tox<y and y<zis python. In many languagesx<y<zis the same as(x<y)<z, which meanszis compared to the boolean result ofx<y. Sofalse<z, for example.
– Håken Lid
Nov 11 at 14:19
Really appreciate the responses guys. It's a context of a query. I just tried playing around with my database and yes, it will return a syntax error if done in PostgreSQL. However, I was doing some practice on HackerRank and it returns a result if done in MySQL. Does that mean that MySQL supports that sort of syntax, or HackerRank is doing something incorrectly?
– GeekRome
Nov 16 at 12:30
add a comment |
Operator precedence and type conversion I would guess
– Nick A
Nov 11 at 14:15
Are you asking this in the context of a query, proc, or function? Can you shows the entire relevant code?
– Tim Biegeleisen
Nov 11 at 14:15
Is this possible in postgresql? If I tryselect (1<2<3);I get a syntax error. The only language that I know of wherex<y<zis equivalent tox<y and y<zis python. In many languagesx<y<zis the same as(x<y)<z, which meanszis compared to the boolean result ofx<y. Sofalse<z, for example.
– Håken Lid
Nov 11 at 14:19
Really appreciate the responses guys. It's a context of a query. I just tried playing around with my database and yes, it will return a syntax error if done in PostgreSQL. However, I was doing some practice on HackerRank and it returns a result if done in MySQL. Does that mean that MySQL supports that sort of syntax, or HackerRank is doing something incorrectly?
– GeekRome
Nov 16 at 12:30
Operator precedence and type conversion I would guess
– Nick A
Nov 11 at 14:15
Operator precedence and type conversion I would guess
– Nick A
Nov 11 at 14:15
Are you asking this in the context of a query, proc, or function? Can you shows the entire relevant code?
– Tim Biegeleisen
Nov 11 at 14:15
Are you asking this in the context of a query, proc, or function? Can you shows the entire relevant code?
– Tim Biegeleisen
Nov 11 at 14:15
Is this possible in postgresql? If I try
select (1<2<3); I get a syntax error. The only language that I know of where x<y<z is equivalent to x<y and y<z is python. In many languages x<y<z is the same as (x<y)<z, which means z is compared to the boolean result of x<y. So false<z, for example.– Håken Lid
Nov 11 at 14:19
Is this possible in postgresql? If I try
select (1<2<3); I get a syntax error. The only language that I know of where x<y<z is equivalent to x<y and y<z is python. In many languages x<y<z is the same as (x<y)<z, which means z is compared to the boolean result of x<y. So false<z, for example.– Håken Lid
Nov 11 at 14:19
Really appreciate the responses guys. It's a context of a query. I just tried playing around with my database and yes, it will return a syntax error if done in PostgreSQL. However, I was doing some practice on HackerRank and it returns a result if done in MySQL. Does that mean that MySQL supports that sort of syntax, or HackerRank is doing something incorrectly?
– GeekRome
Nov 16 at 12:30
Really appreciate the responses guys. It's a context of a query. I just tried playing around with my database and yes, it will return a syntax error if done in PostgreSQL. However, I was doing some practice on HackerRank and it returns a result if done in MySQL. Does that mean that MySQL supports that sort of syntax, or HackerRank is doing something incorrectly?
– GeekRome
Nov 16 at 12:30
add a comment |
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Operator precedence and type conversion I would guess
– Nick A
Nov 11 at 14:15
Are you asking this in the context of a query, proc, or function? Can you shows the entire relevant code?
– Tim Biegeleisen
Nov 11 at 14:15
Is this possible in postgresql? If I try
select (1<2<3);I get a syntax error. The only language that I know of wherex<y<zis equivalent tox<y and y<zis python. In many languagesx<y<zis the same as(x<y)<z, which meanszis compared to the boolean result ofx<y. Sofalse<z, for example.– Håken Lid
Nov 11 at 14:19
Really appreciate the responses guys. It's a context of a query. I just tried playing around with my database and yes, it will return a syntax error if done in PostgreSQL. However, I was doing some practice on HackerRank and it returns a result if done in MySQL. Does that mean that MySQL supports that sort of syntax, or HackerRank is doing something incorrectly?
– GeekRome
Nov 16 at 12:30